Explain why Mexico declined as a nation after its successful rebellion against Spain in 1821. Compare the national rebellions against Spain with the American revolt against Britain in the eighteenth century. Was it anomalous that slavery was ended in the US so late, as compared to new nations in Latin America?
War or revolt in any nation has negative impacts for the society. In the case of Mexico, the Spanish merchants returned back to Spain and the silver mines were impacted. There was also loss in the mercury. Even though the Spanish merchants left the country, the existing patterns continued to remain. There were upheaval and basic apprehensiveness of the people that had caused the nation to become weak economically. There were still certain geographic limitations that the nation had to face.
In the case of America, the rebellion was more complicated. Some of the states were under the British colonies and the taxes went higher in America. These impacted the British merchants as well. The American revolution also impacted the economy of the nation as well it Britain. It had paved way for inflation and the access to basic care. No two-national history can be compared. There are a number of intricate internal factors that need to be considered. There is the factoring in of the economics, labor, availability of resources, ideology of the people and the European country that had conquered the nation. Hence, it cannot be stated the slavery ending timeline was anomalous. There are a number of instinct factors that need to be considered. The European control of the region was different in the different locations. Owing to this the comparison cannot be made between two different events as the ideology of the people and their operational procedures are different.
Hence, the rebellion had caused differential impacts in the different nations and cannot be compared.